The deed to one of my properties is a little confusing to me.
First, the deed says “the following MINERAL interest”. Then it says “An undivided 1/64 of the land owner’s 1/8 ROYALTY”
Does this wording have any material impact? Is there a difference in a mineral interest and a royalty interest?
Not a lawyer, but whether a deed conveys a mineral interest or a royalty interest is material. Since a mineral interest carries the right to negotiate leases, receive bonus payments and royalty payments, and a royalty interest only the right to receive royalty payments if there is production, the nature and the amount of the interest can be a big issue.
You didn’t mention the State. In Texas there has been a lot of case law involving whether the wording of a deed reserved minerals, or royalty, and many times the simple word “of” made a big difference in the fractional interest involved.
Thanks Dusty! I was afraid that something like this might be the case. The property is in TX . . . Pecos County to ne exact. I may need an attorney who is well versed in this case law. 
How many total acres in the lease tracts?
3840 acres. .0078125 royalty interest
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