I purchased 40 acres last year and now being contacted for a lease. When I purchased the property, I asked and was told verbally and in the contract that 100% mineral rights are with property. However, the closing papers from the title company don't say a thing about it. There is nothing noted on the deed either way.
I was doing some searching on the property and 2 owners before me seemed to have had the property for a long time and there was a 1yr lease put on the property in 1980 and there is a ratification doc to release it. Since there, there is no activity on record for leasing or sale of rights.
The previous owner to me's deed indicates "all rights, title, and interests" of said property.
I am curious how I can firm this up as owning the rights? I obviously need to know but also wondering if the lease hounds already know more than me thus the reason for their calls??