My question regards land in Midland Texas, Our land has been in he family for 120 years, and has had many a land lease on it. But to date has never yet provided any of our relatives a single royalty check. The land sits on Survey section that has about 650 acres and presently has 10 producing wells. I recently spoke with a company seeking investors for 2 new well projects going on in the Gulf in Mississippi, and asked him the same question. His response was that if there are (ANY) wells producing on that Survey Section, that ALL mineral rights owners in that Section should be receiving a royalty check. Can anyone here confirm?
He spoke about pooling rights ect., is this a case where we should research and possibly seek past payments as well..
I have lots of questions as I try to understand how this all works..
If you do not own minerals under the entire 650 acres then the producing wells and the production would be out your ownership boundaries. Exactly how many acres do you own?
Then if none of the wells are on your 80 and/or none of your 80 is pooled into a well, you are entitled to non royalty
That does make sense to me, and that is kinda what I understood.
However when he started discussing horizontal drilling and pooling, he said point blank that if that is occurring in the Surveyed Area the whole (650) acre area, that all Mineral Rights owners should be receiving a royalty payment for that production. Even if there was hundreds of mineral rights owners, as they could be pooling oil from the entire surveyed area.
Well I guess I will wait for someone to put a well over our area, but if they are pooling from the entire area, that would be theft in my mind. Don't know too much about it so, all info helps..
If your family owns minerals and your minerals were pooled, someone in the family would know. Minerals are hard to steal